Tests in otorhinolaryngology for students. Otorhinolaryngology tests for the qualifying exam in general practice (family medicine) At what age do pharyngeal abscesses occur

1. Otoscopy is an examination

a) throats

b) ear

c) larynx

d) nose

2. Pharyngoscopy is an examination

a) throats

b) nose

c) ear

d) larynx

3. Indirect laryngoscopy is an examination

a) larynx

b) ear

c) throats

d) nose

4. Rhinoscopy is an examination

a) ear

b) throats

c) larynx

d) nose

5. Acute otitis is inflammation

a) middle ear

b) palatine tonsils

c) nasal mucosa

d) pharyngeal mucosa

6. Complications when foreign bodies enter the larynx include

a) pneumonia

b) nosebleeds

c) anosmia

d) inflammation of the middle ear

7. A throat swab is taken to rule out

a) diphtheria

b) syphilis

c) tuberculosis

d) salmonellosis

8. Pharyngoscopy is performed using

a) spatula

b) nasal mirror

c) ear funnel

d) Kulikovsky needles

9. Puncture of the maxillary sinus is performed using

a) nasopharyngeal mirror

b) Kulikovsky needles

c) ear funnel

d) spatula

10. Adenotomy is a removal

a) palatine tonsils

b) nasopharyngeal tonsil

c) lingual tonsil

d) nasal polyps

11. Acute adenoiditis is inflammation

a) nasopharyngeal tonsil

b) nasal mucosa

c) palatine tonsils

d) maxillary sinuses

12. Tonsillotome is necessary for

a) partial removal of the palatine tonsils

b) removal of the nasopharyngeal tonsil

c) removal of the lingual tonsil

d) puncture of the maxillary sinus

13. For acute tonsillitis, a characteristic symptom is

a) nasal obstruction

c) pain when swallowing

d) hearing loss

14. Inflammatory diseases of the pharynx include

a) tonsillitis

b) acute laryngitis

c) otitis media

d) bronchitis

15. Anomalies of the outer ear include

a) choanal atresia

b) non-closure of the hard palate

c) microtia

d) macrotia

16. Ear liquorrhea occurs when

a) fracture of the base of the skull and temporal bone

b) nose injuries

c) ear injuries

c) injuries of the palatine tonsils

17. During otoscopy in children, the auricle is pulled back

a) up and back

b) forward and down

c) forward

d) down and back

18. The cause of acute inflammation of the middle ear in children is

a) tonsillitis

b) laryngitis

c) pathology in the nasopharynx

d) pharyngitis

19. The larynx in a child is located at the level of the cervical vertebra

20. Foreign bodies of the larynx are localized in

b) nasopharynx

c) oropharynx

d) bronchi

Diabetes tests in ophthalmology - 20 questions

1. Visual acuity is determined using

a) perimeter

b) tables of Rabkin E.B.

c) tables of Sivtsev D.A.

d) refractometer

2. Visual acuity equal to

3. Peripheral vision characterizes

a) visual acuity

b) field of view

c) dark adaptation

d) light adaptation

4. Clouding of the lens is called

a) microfakia

b) cataract

c) macrophakia

d) myopia

5. Typical complaint in mature cataract

a) lack of objective vision

b) discharge from the eye

c) improvement of previously reduced vision

d) eye pain

6. Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the eye is called

a) dacryocystitis

b) conjunctivitis

c) dacryadenitis

d) blepharitis

7. The nature of discharge from the eyes in diphtheria conjunctivitis

a) cloudy with flakes

b) mucopurulent, purulent

c) the color of meat slops

d) there is no discharge

8. The nature of the discharge with gonoblenorrhea

a) cloudy with flakes

b) mucopurulent, purulent

c) the color of meat slops

d) lacrimation

9. Edema of the eyelids with diphtheria conjunctivitis

a) tight

b) "wooden", purple-bluish

c) soft, hyperemic

d) missing

10. Gonoblenorrhea of ​​the newborn, if the infection occurred during the passage of the child through the birth canal, begins after birth

a) on the 5th day

b) in 2-3 days

c) immediately

d) after 2 weeks

11. For the prevention of gonorrhea, a solution is instilled into the eyes of a newborn

a) 0.25% chloramphenicol

b) 30% sulfacyl sodium

c) 3% collargol

d) furatsilina 1:5000

12. An eye patch is applied when

a) conjunctivitis

b) keratitis

c) an eye injury

d) blepharitis

13. Diseases of the eyelids include

c) keratitis, conjunctivitis

d) cataract, aphakia

14. Diseases of the lacrimal apparatus include

a) dacryocystitis, dacryadenitis

b) blepharitis, barley, chalazion

c) keratitis, conjunctivitis

d) cataract, aphakia

15. The cause of barley is

a) injury

b) infection

c) allergies

d) anemia

16. Inflammation of the cornea is

a) iritis

b) keratitis

c) cyclitis

d) blepharitis

17. Sign of congenital glaucoma in a newborn

a) strabismus

b) an increase in the size of the cornea

c) endophthalmos

d) nystagmus

18. Intraocular pressure in penetrating eye injury

a) does not change

b) sharply increased

c) lowered

d) slightly increased

19. In case of a penetrating wound of the eye, the patient must be injected parenterally

a) a broad spectrum antibiotic

b) 40% glucose solution

c) 25% magnesium sulfate solution

d) 1% nicotinic acid solution

20. Emergency care for acid burns to the eyes

a) rinse eyes with water for 10-20 minutes and 0.1% acetic acid solution

b) rinse eyes with water for 10-20 minutes and 2% sodium bicarbonate solution

c) drip a 30% solution of sodium sulfacyl into the conjunctival cavity and inject an antibiotic ointment

d) inject antibiotic ointment into the conjunctival cavity b

a) upper, lower, middle;

b) Upper, lower, medial;

c) upper, lower;

d) Lateral, medial;

e) Lateral, lower.
002. The nasal septum is formed by:

a) Triangular cartilage, ethmoid labyrinth, vomer;

d) Maxillary sinus;

e) Oropharynx.
013. What are the main symptoms of ozena, except for:

a) Fetid runny nose;

b) Lack of smell;

c) Viscous secret;

d) Wide nasal passages;

e) Hypertrophy of the turbinates.
014. How many stages are distinguished during acute rhinitis, except for:

a) Stage of dry irritation;

b) Stage of mucous secretions;

c) The stage of blood secretions;

d) Stage of mucopurulent discharge.
015. What types of tamponade are used to stop bleeding, except for:

a) Average tamponade;

b) Anterior tamponade;

c) Posterior tamponade.
016. Rules for the removal of foreign bodies from the nose in children, except for:

a) fixation of the child;

b) Round foreign bodies are rolled out with a hook;

c) Flat foreign bodies are removed with tweezers;

d) Pushed into the nasopharynx.
017. What symptoms are typical for deviated septum, how to recognize this disease, what should be the treatment, except for:

b) Anterior rhinoscopy;

c) Surgical treatment;

d) Putrid smell.
018. Clinical signs of a bleeding nasal polyp, its localization, except for:

a) Cartilaginous part of the nasal septum;

b) Opener;

c) Frequent nosebleeds.
019. What intracranial complications are observed in diseases of the paranasal sinuses, except for:

a) Abscess of the occipital lobe;

b) Thrombosis of the cavernous sinus;

c) Abscess of the frontal lobe;

d) Meningitis.
020. Name the causes of deviated nasal septum:

a) Anomalies in the development of the facial skeleton and trauma to the nose;

b) Injury to the nose;

c) Chronic hypertrophic rhinitis;

d) Nasal polyposis;

e) Acute rhinitis.
(=#) SECTION 2. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, DISEASES OF THE PHARYNX.

001. What anatomical formation is a continuation of the pharyngeal space?

b) Posterior mediastinum;

c) parapharyngeal space;

d) Peri-almond space;

e) Paravertebral space.

002. How many lymphoid formations make up the Waldeyer-Pirogov lymphoid ring?

003. At what age do pharyngeal abscesses occur?

a) first year of life;

b) 10 years of age;

c) 30 years of age;

d) 50 years old;

e) Over 70 years old.

004. What large arterial vessel is located near the lower pole of the palatine tonsil?

a) Internal carotid artery;

b) External carotid artery;

c) Common carotid artery;

d) Thyroid artery;

e) Main.
005. Name the forms of hypertrophic pharyngitis:

a) Granular, lateral;

b) catarrhal;

c) edematous;

e) Compensated.

006. What are the levels of anatomical narrowing of the esophagus?

a) The entrance to the esophagus, the level of the bifurcation of the trachea, the level of the diaphragm;

b) The level of tracheal bifurcation, the level of the diaphragm;

c) The level of the aortic arch, the level of the diaphragm;

d) The entrance to the stomach, the level of the aortic arch, the level of the diaphragm.

007. List the methods of examination of the nasopharynx in children?

a) Posterior rhinoscopy, digital examination;

b) Anterior rhinoscopy;

c) X-ray, posterior rhinoscopy, digital examination, probing;

d) Indirect laryngoscopy;

e) Probing.
008. Specify the characteristic causes of recurrence of adenoids:

a) Violation of the protein metabolism of the body;

b) Allergic reactivity of the body, technical errors when performing adenotomy;

c) Technical errors when performing adenotomy;

d) Removal of the tonsil in early childhood.
009. Specify the most characteristic objective signs of chronic adenoiditis:

a) "Bluish" and "white" spots of Voyachek on the mucous membrane of the nose;

b) Mucous or mucopurulent discharge in the nose;

c) Thickening of the side ridges;

d) Smoothness of the central furrow;

e) Gothic palate, mucous or mucopurulent discharge in the nose, thickening of the lateral ridges.

010. Symptoms of ulcerative necrotic sore throat, except:

a) The presence of an ulcer at the upper pole of the tonsils;

b) Dirty gray plaque;

c) Putrid smell from the mouth;

d) Absence of pain;

e) Grayish-yellow coating.
011. Specify formations where foreign bodies are most often retained in the laryngopharynx, except for:

a) palatine tonsils;

b) Valecules;

c) Lingual tonsil;

d) Laryngeal ventricles;

e) Pear-shaped sinuses.
012. Specify the clinical forms of angina vulgaris, except for:

a) catarrhal;

b) Follicular;

c) Lacunar;

d) Phlegmonous;

e) Gangrenous.
013. What infectious diseases can occur with tonsillitis, except for:

a) Mononucleosis;

b) Diphtheria;

c) Scarlet fever;

e) Epidemic meningitis.
014. Specify the muscles that raise the pharynx, except:

a) Stylo-pharyngeal;

b) Palato-pharyngeal;

c) Palatolingual;

d) Constrictors of the pharynx;

e) Linguo-pharyngeal.
015. List the conservative methods of treatment of chronic tonsillitis, except for:

a) Washing lacunae;

b) Rinse and soak the tonsils with medicinal substances;

c) Physiotherapy;

d) Hyposensitizing therapy;

e) Removal of the tonsils.
016. The methods of examination of the pharynx include, with the exception of:

a) Posterior rhinoscopy;

b) Mesopharyngoscopy;

c) Finger examination of the nasopharynx;

d) Indirect laryngoscopy;

e) Tracheobronchoscopy.

017. Specify the main functions of the Waldeyer-Pirogov lymphadenoid pharyngeal ring, except for:

a) accommodation;

b) Reflex;

c) Protective;

d) Immunological;

e) Hematopoietic.
018. Therapeutic tactics for paratonsillar abscess, except:

a) Diagnostic puncture;

b) Rinsing the mouth;

c) opening of the abscess;

d) Conservative therapy;

e) Abscess tonsillectomy.
019. List the layers of the pharynx, except:

a) mucous membrane;

b) Fibrous layer;

c) Vascular layer;

d) Muscles of the pharynx;

e) Fascia of the pharynx.
020. List the most common symptoms of a foreign body in the cervical esophagus, except for:

a) Pain when swallowing;

b) Dysphagia;

c) Pain in the epigastric region;

d) Increased salivation;

e) Refusal to eat.
021. Specify the diagnostic methods for foreign bodies of the cervical esophagus, except for:

a) Indirect pharyngolaryngoscopy;

b) Overview radiography of the cervical esophagus according to Zemtsov;

c) Contrast radiography of the esophagus;

d) Fibroesophagoscopy;

e) Rigid esophagoscopy.
022. List the possible complications arising from a long stay in the esophagus of a foreign body and its removal, except for:

a) Esophagitis, abscess of the esophageal wall;

b) Bleeding from large vessels;

c) Perforation of the wall of the esophagus;

d) Mediastinitis;

e) Spontaneous pneumothorax.
023. List the most common clinical and radiographic signs of parapharyngeal abscesses, except for:

a) Neck asymmetry;

b) infiltration and soreness of the tissues of the neck, often unilateral;

c) Hyperemia;

d) On the radiograph of the neck according to Zemtsov, the expansion of the prevertebral space and the presence of gas bubbles;

e) Rigidity of the occipital muscles.
024. Specify the symptoms of juvenile angiofibroma

nasopharynx, except:

a) Difficulty in nasal breathing;

b) Nosebleeds;

c) Gothic sky, facial deformity;

d) Replacement of surrounding tissues.
025. What blood diseases are observed

secondary angina, except for:

a) Agranulocytosis;

b) Leukemia;

c) Alimentary - toxic aleukia;

d) Capillarotoxicosis.
026. What are the degrees of enlargement of the nasopharyngeal

tonsils, except:

d) 4 tbsp.
027. Name the vessels and nerves passing through the parapharyngeal space, except for:

a) External carotid artery, vertebral artery;

b) Internal carotid artery;

c) Internal jugular artery;

d) vagus nerve.
028. In what parts of the esophagus are the deepest chemical burns observed, except for:

a) In places of physiological narrowing;

b) In places of anatomical narrowing;

c) The mucous membrane of the esophagus.
(=#) SECTION 3. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, DISEASES OF THE LARYNX.
001. Name the upper and lower borders of the larynx:

a) epiglottis;

b) Vestibular folds and VI cervical vertebra;

d) Epiglottis and VII cervical vertebra;

e) IV and VI cervical vertebra;

f) VII cervical vertebra and thyroid cartilage.

002. What type of tracheotomy is performed for stenosis of the larynx in children?

a) Lower tracheotomy;

b) Upper tracheotomy;

c) Middle tracheotomy;

d) Conicotomy.
003. What are the boundaries of the trachea:

a) VI cervical vertebra, V thoracic vertebra;

b) VII cervical vertebra, IV-V thoracic vertebra;

c) V thoracic vertebra and V cervical vertebra;

d) The lower edge of the thyroid cartilage and the V cervical vertebra;

e) The lower edge of the thyroid cartilage and the VI cervical vertebra.

004. What groups are the internal muscles of the larynx divided into?

a) Raising and lowering the larynx;

005. In what part of the larynx is the lymphatic network most pronounced?

a) vestibular department;

b) Middle department;

c) Underlayment department.

006. What muscle expands the larynx?

a) Shield - cricoid;

b) Shield - arytenoid internal;

c) Posterior scoop - cricoid muscle;

e) Shield - sublingual.
007. List the main functions of the larynx:

c) Reflex, protective;

e) Respiratory, reflex.
008. In the classification of cancer of the larynx, there are:

a) 4 stages;

b) 3 stages;

c) 2 stages;

d) 5 stages.
009. Specify signs of mutational changes in the larynx in young men:

a) Reducing the angle between the plates of the thyroid cartilage, the protruding upper edge of the thyroid cartilage, increasing the hyoid bone;

b) An increase in the hyoid bone, the mucous membrane of the larynx is brightly hyperemic, non-closure of the glottis, a change in the strength and timbre of the voice;

c) The mucous membrane of the larynx is brightly hyperemic, non-closure of the glottis, changes in the strength and timbre of the voice;

d) Painful swallowing;

e) Cough and hemoptysis.

010. Name the joints of the larynx:

a) Scoop - epiglottic;

b) Ring - thyroid, scoop - epiglottis;

c) Ring - arytenoid, ring - thyroid;

d) Shield - epiglottic;

e) Supraglottally - cricoid.
011. Name precancerous diseases of the larynx, except for:

a) Papilloma;

b) Fibroma;

c) Tuberculosis;

d) Cysts of the ventricle;

e) Angioma.
012. The clinical picture of chondroperichondritis of the larynx is characterized, except for:

a) Pain in the larynx, painful swallowing;

b) Increase in the volume of the larynx, thickening of its cartilage;

c) Swelling and infiltration of the mucous membrane of the larynx;

d) The presence of gray-dirty films in the larynx and pharynx;

e) Violation of the mobility of the larynx and stenosis.
013. Laryngoscopy picture in acute laryngitis, except:

a) Infiltration of the mucous membrane;

b) Point hemorrhages;

d) Puffiness of folds;

e) Nodules of singers.
014. Name the causes of acute laryngitis, except for:

a) Infectious diseases;

b) hypothermia;

d) Occupational hazards;

e) angina.
015. Which cartilages of the larynx are hyaline, except for:

a) thyroid;

b) arytenoid;

c) Horn-shaped;

d) epiglottis;

e) cricoid.
016. Name the external muscles of the larynx, except:

a) Sternum - hyoid;

b) Shield - cricoid;

c) Anterior arytenoid;

e) Sternum - thyroid;

f) Shield - sublingual.
017. What is formed by the vestibule of the larynx, except:

a) Valecules;

b) epiglottis;

c) scoop - epiglottic fold;

d) arytenoid cartilages;

e) Ventricular folds.
018. Treatment of acute laryngitis, except for:

a) Antibacterial;

b) Infusion of medicinal substances into the larynx;

c) Inhalation;

d) Cauterization of the mucosa;

e) Anti-edematous therapy.
019. Name the clinical forms of chronic laryngitis, except for:

a) catarrhal laryngitis;

b) Subglottic laryngitis;

c) Hyperplastic laryngitis;

d) Atrophic laryngitis;

e) Hypertrophic laryngitis.
020. How is the innervation of the larynx, except:

a) Superior laryngeal nerve;

b) Vagus nerve;

c) Linguistic - pharyngeal nerve, hypoglossal nerve;

d) lower laryngeal nerve.
021. Name the forms of chronic hypertrophic laryngitis, except for:

a) limited;

b) Hypertrophic;

c) Diffuse.
022. Specify the anatomical formations of the middle part of the larynx, except for:

a) vestibular folds;

c) Scooped, epiglottis;

d) laryngeal ventricles.
023. What diseases cause infectious granulomas of ENT organs, except for:

a) Tuberculosis;

b) Wegener's granulomatosis;

c) Syphilis;

d) Scleroma;

e) Lupus.
024. Specify the cause of false croup, except for:

a) Allergic background;

b) Exudative diathesis;

c) Adenoids;

d) Adenovirus infection.
025. Diagnostic methods for foreign bodies of the trachea and bronchi include, except:

a) Radiography;

b) Tomography;

c) Direct laryngoscopy;

d) Tracheobrochoscopy.
026. In what parts of the respiratory tract are scleral infiltrates and scars localized, except for:

a) entrance to the nose;

c) Nasopharynx;

d) hypopharynx, epiglottis;

e) Subglottic part of the larynx, bifurcation of the trachea.
(=#) SECTION 4. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND DISEASES OF THE EAR.
001. What is registered by the semicircular canals:

a) centrifugal acceleration;

b) Rectilinear motion;

c) centripetal acceleration;

d) Angular accelerations;

e) The attraction of the Earth.
002. The etiological factor in mucosal otitis media is:

a) Yeast-like fungi;

b) mold fungi;

c) Green streptococcus;

d) Mucous streptococcus;

e) Staphylococcus aureus.

003. In what part of the cranial cavity does the cochlear aqueduct open?

a) Anterior cranial fossa;

b) Posterior cranial fossa;

c) Middle cranial fossa;

d) Rhomboid fossa;

e) Sylvius aqueduct.

004. What is an adequate stimulus for the semicircular canals and what is the threshold of its excitability?

a) Angular acceleration 2 - 3 degrees per second;

b) Angular acceleration 4 - 5 degrees per second;

c) Rectilinear acceleration 4 - 5 degrees per second;

d) Rectilinear acceleration 2 - 3 degrees per second;

e) Angular acceleration 1 - 2 degrees per second.

005. In the zone of what frequencies does the human ear best hear tones?

a) 50 Hz - 100 Hz;

b) 8000 - 10000 Hz;

c) 800 Hz - 2000 Hz;

d) 10000 - 13000 Hz;

e) 10 - 50 Hz.

006. What surgical aid is performed in acute purulent otitis media complicated by mastoiditis, subperiosteal abscess?

a) Paracentesis of the tympanic membrane;

b) General cavity surgery on the ear;

c) Anthrotomy;

d) Atticotomy;

e) Antromastoidotomy.

007. How many openings do the semicircular canals open into the vestibule?

a) Four holes;

b) Five holes;

c) Two holes;

d) One hole;

e) Three holes.

008. What movements are recorded by the apparatus of the vestibule?

a) Rectilinear acceleration, acceleration due to gravity;

b) Angular acceleration, rectilinear acceleration;

c) Acceleration due to gravity, angular acceleration;

d) Earth gravity, angular acceleration;

e) Rectilinear acceleration, angular acceleration.

009. Specify patients with malignant diseases of ENT - organs of II clinical group?

a) incurable;

b) Received a course of combined treatment with complete tumor regression;

c) After ablastic surgical removal of the tumor and lymph nodes;

d) Primary patients I - II - III - IV stages without distant metastases;

e) Having a relapse of the disease.
010. What departments does the outer ear consist of, except for:

a) auricle;

b) External auditory meatus;

c) eardrum;

d) Tympanic cavity, Eustachian tube.
011. What parts does the stirrup consist of, except for:

a) head;

c) Foot plate;

d) handle.

012. How is the direction of nystagmus determined?

a) By the fast component;

b) By the slow component;

c) looking straight ahead;

d) Look up;

d) Look down.

013. How many degrees of torso deviation are distinguished in the Woyachek test?

a) One degree;

b) Two degrees;

c) Three degrees;

d) Four degrees;

e) Five degrees.

014. What departments does the ear canal consist of?

a) membranous;

b) Cartilaginous;

c) Webbed - cartilaginous and bone;

d) Bone.

015. In what part of the temporal bone is the inner ear located?

a) mastoid process;

b) Scales of the temporal bone;

c) Pyramid;

d) snail;

e) The occipital bone.
016. Most often, microorganisms penetrate into

middle ear through:

a) Eustachian tube (rhinotubular way);

b) External auditory meatus in case of injury of the tympanic membrane;

c) Blood (hematogenous route);

d) From the cranial cavity along the vestibulocochlear and facial nerves (perineurally);

e) From the cells of the mastoid process with primary mastoiditis (retrograde path).
017. In chronic catarrhal otitis observed:

a) Thickening of the eardrum;

b) Its protrusion into the external auditory meatus;

c) Atrophy and thinning of the tympanic membrane;

d) Hyperemia of the stretched part of the tympanic membrane;

e) The light cone is well defined.

018. Necrolysis of what tissue occurs in young children in the middle ear?

a) connecting;

b) epithelium;

c) myxoid;

d) cartilage;

e) Bone.
019. Name the muscles of the tympanic membrane:

b) Stirrup, a muscle that stretches the eardrum;

c) Tailoring;

d) Lateral, the muscle that stretches the eardrum.

020. What is the vestibular analyzer?

a) vestibule, semicircular canals;

b) Semicircular canals;

d) snail;

e) Organ of Corti.

021. What fluids are there in the inner ear?

a) Perilymph, endolymph;

b) Blood plasma;

c) Exudate;

d) Endolymph;

e) Transudate.
022. Specify the causes of ear liquorrhea:

a) Traumatic brain injury, trauma of the dura mater during ear surgery, chronic purulent-destructive otitis, tumors involving the dura mater and causing its destruction;

b) Hydrocephalus;

c) Injury to the dura mater during ear surgery;

d) Tumors of the anterior lobe of the brain;

e) Chronic purulent - destructive otitis, tumors involving the dura mater in the process and causing its destruction.
023. Specify the main instrumental and invasive methods for diagnosing otogenic abscess of the temporal lobe of the brain:

a) Spinal puncture;

b) Rheoencephalography;

c) M - echoscopy, electroencephalography;

d) Carotid angiography, computed tomography, M - echoscopy, electroencephalography;

e) X-ray of the skull.

024. Among infectious otitis media, the most severe necrotic changes are observed in patients with:

a) Scarlet fever, measles;

b) Influenza, scarlet fever;

d) Diphtheria;

e) whooping cough.
025. Permanent clinical symptoms of chronic suppurative otitis media are:

a) Otorrhoea;

b) Sensation of noise in the head;

c) Persistent perforation of the tympanic membrane, otorrhoea, imbalance;

f) Hearing loss, otorrhoea, persistent perforation of the tympanic membrane.
026. Otoscopic diagnostic signs of acute suppurative otitis media are:

a) Hyperemia of the tympanic membrane;

b) Dull color and scarring of the tympanic membrane, protrusion of the tympanic membrane, mucopurulent discharge;

c) protrusion of the eardrum;

d) Shortening of the handle of the malleus and light cone;

e) Muco-purulent discharge, hyperemia of the tympanic membrane, protrusion of the tympanic membrane;

f) Granulation in the lumen of the external auditory canal.
027. Pain in acute purulent otitis media is caused by pressure of the edematous mucous membrane and exudate on the branches:

a) Facial nerve, tongue - pharyngeal nerve;

b) Trigeminal nerve, tongue - pharyngeal nerve;

c) lingual - pharyngeal nerve;

d) Vestibulo-cochlear nerve;

e) Auditory nerve.

028. What vestibular tests with stimulation of the vestibular analyzer are widely used in the clinic?

a) Rotational, caloric, pressor;

b) Caloric, pressor, galvanic;

c) Galvanic;

d) Press room;

e) Chemical.

029. What tuning forks are most often used in the study of hearing?

a) S-128, S-256;

b) S-256, S-2048;

e) S-2048.
030. Name the methods of examination of hearing in young children, except:

a) Determination of cochleo-palpebral, cochleo-pupillary, cochleo-laryngeal reflexes;

b) Rotation of the eyes and head under the influence of sound;

c) Objective audiometry;

d) Accumetry, suprathreshold audiometry.

031. What is typical for patients with tympanic membrane defects?

a) Discharge from the ear, hearing loss;

b) Congestion of the ear, discharge from the ear;

c) Hearing loss;

d) Rise in temperature;

d) weakness.

032. What groups of reflexes arise during vestibular stimulation?

a) Sensory reaction, vegetative reaction, somatic reaction;

b) Vegetative reaction;

c) Somatic reaction;

d) Vestibular reaction, somatic reaction;

e) Otolith reaction, vegetative reaction, somatic reaction.

033. What are the methods of hearing research using speech?

a) Colloquial speech, whispering speech, screaming with muffling the opposite ear with a ratchet;

b) Whispered speech, colloquial speech;

c) Audiometry;

d) Scream with muffling of the opposite ear with a ratchet;

e) Tuning fork study.
034. Causes of diffuse inflammation of the external auditory canal, except:

a) Mastoiditis;

b) Mechanical injury;

c) Thermal factors;

d) Chemical irritation;

e) Infection.
035. Clinical feature of acute otitis in children is the presence, except for:

a) The phenomena of intestinal dyspepsia;

b) The phenomena of meningism;

c) Drowsiness, lethargy;

d) Vestibular disorders;

e) Hepatolienal disorders.
036. List the main therapeutic measures in patients with intracranial complications, except for:

a) Surgical treatment;

b) Massive antibiotic therapy;

c) Dehydration;

d) Detoxification;

e) Hormone therapy.
037. Name the quadrants of the tympanic membrane, except:

a) Anterior - upper;

b) Anterior - lower;

c) Medial;

d) Posterior - upper;

e) Posterior - lower.
038. What departments of the auditory analyzer can be affected in case of neuritis of the auditory nerve, except for:

a) Receptor department;

b) Conducting ways;

c) Central department;

d) The vestibule of the cochlea.
039. Longitudinal fracture of the pyramid of the temporal bone is characterized, except for:

a) Stepped protrusion in the bone section of the external auditory canal;

b) Conductive hearing loss;

c) Rupture of the eardrum;

d) Rupture of the labyrinth capsule;

e) Liquorrhea.
040. What symptoms can be used to diagnose mastoiditis, except for:

a) Copious discharge from the ear;

b) protruding ear;

c) Pain on palpation of the mastoid process;

d) Decreased pneumatization of the mastoid process;

e) stuffy ear.
041. Name tuning fork tests for diagnosing otosclerosis, except:

a) Jelly experience;

b) Rinne's experience;

c) Tsitovich's experiment;

d) Federici's experience;

e) Bing's experiment.
042. Specify the main signs of epitympanitis, except for:

a) Central perforation in the mesotympanum;

b) Marginal perforation of the tympanic membrane;

c) Fetid purulent secret;

d) Hearing loss;

e) Damage to the bone structures of the ear.
043. What are the signs of chronic suppurative otitis media, except for:

a) granulation;

b) Prolonged suppuration from the ear;

c) Persistent perforation of the tympanic membrane;

d) Hearing loss;

e) The presence of sulfur in the external auditory canal.
044. What refers to the sound-conducting part of the auditory analyzer, except for:

a) auricle;

b) the organ of Corti;

c) ear canal;

d) Tympanic cavity with contents;

e) snail.
045. Specify three clinical forms of otogenic sepsis, except for:

a) Septicemia;

b) Septicopyemia;

c) Respiratory syndrome;

d) Bacterial shock.

046. In case of otogenic abscess of the left temporal lobe of the brain in right-handers, it is characteristic, except for:

a) Headache aggravated by tapping on the skull;

b) Hemiparesis on the left;

c) Amnestic aphasia;

d) Bradycardia;

e) General lethargy, lethargy, drowsiness;

e) Congestion in the fundus.
047. Name the stages in the development of otogenic brain abscess, except for:

a) Initial;

b) Latent;

d) Acute;

e) Terminal.
048. Name the identifying points of the tympanic membrane, except for:

a) Short process of the malleus;

b) Hammer handle;

c) Front and back folds;

d) Light cone;

e) Quadrants.
049. In otogenic purulent meningitis, changes in the cerebrospinal fluid are characteristic, except for:

a) Increase in pressure;

b) Transparency change;

c) Increase in the number of cellular elements, mainly neutrophils;

d) Increase in sugar and chlorides;

e) Increasing the protein content.
050. Specify the symptoms of diffuse otogenic purulent meningitis, except for:

a) Intense headache, nausea;

b) Severe condition and high body temperature;

c) Positive symptoms of Kernig and Brudzinsky, stiff neck;

d) Trismus of masticatory muscles;

e) forced position.
051. Specify therapeutic measures for chronic catarrhal otitis, except for:

a) Surgical aid: adenotomy, removal of hypertrophied posterior ends of the turbinates, choanal polyp;

b) Parameatal blockades;

c) Blowing out the auditory tubes;

d) Vibromassage of the tympanic membrane;

e) Physiotherapy.
052. Specify which surgical interventions are performed in chronic exudative otitis media, except for:

a) Myringotomy;

b) Tympanopuncture;

c) General cavity surgery on the ear;

d) Shunting of the tympanic cavity;

e) Transmastoid antrum drainage.
053. Specify therapeutic measures for acute catarrhal otitis, except for:

a) Anti-inflammatory, decongestant, hyposensitizing therapy;

b) Anthrotomy;

c) Vasoconstrictor nasal drops;

d) Physiotherapy;

e) Blowing out the auditory tubes.
054. Otoscopic picture in catarrhal otitis media is characterized, except for:

a) retraction of the tympanic membrane;

b) Shortening of the handle of the malleus;

c) Bright hyperemia of the tympanic membrane;

d) Shortening of the light reflex;

e) Prominence of the posterior fold.
055. Specify instrumental methods of diagnosing otosclerosis, except for:

a) Tonal threshold audiometry;

b) Speech audiometry;

c) Electroencephalography;

d) Acoustic impedancemetry and tympanometry;

e) Experience with tuning forks Federici, Rinne.
056. What are the main causes of cochlear neuritis, except for:

a) Trauma and inflammation of the middle and inner ear;

b) Toxic effect;

c) CNS disease;

d) Disease of the lymphatic system;

e) A disease that causes a change in the rheology and composition of the blood.
057. With what diseases should Meniere's disease be differentiated, except for:

a) Neurinoma of the VIII pair;

b) Hydrocephalus;

c) Leptomeningitis of the cerebellopontine angle;

d) Labyrinthitis;

e) Vertebrogenic vestibular dysfunction.
058. Name the operations performed in Meniere's disease, except:

a) Drainage of the endolymphatic sac;

b) Crossing the drum string;

c) Excision of the tympanic plexus;

d) Operation Arelanza;

e) Ossiculotomy.
059. Meniere's disease is characterized, except for:

a) Fluctuating hearing loss;

b) Attacks of dizziness;

c) Low-frequency hearing loss in the early stages of the disease;

d) Positive FUNG on the affected side;

e) Federici's negative experience on the affected side.

060. Nystagmus is not characterized by:

a) direction;

b) Planes;

c) Pupil reactions;

d) Amplitude;

a) Spontaneous, optical;

b) pressor;

c) Kinetic;

d) Caloric;

e) Rotational; positional.
062. The cause of deafness in a child during fetal development can be, except for:

a) infection;

b) Intoxication;

c) Immunological conflict;

d) Incorrect position of the fetus;

e) Genetic diseases.
063. What anatomical formations are located on the medial wall of the tympanic cavity, except for:

b) Drum string;

c) Oval window;

d) Round window;

e) Facial nerve.
064. What experiments are used to study bone conduction, except for:

a) Weber's experience;

b) Schwabach's experiment;

c) Rinne's experience;

d) Voyachek's experiment;

e) Federici's experience.
065. Name the main groups of air cells, except for:

a) Apical;

b) Perianthral, ​​angular;

c) Perisinus;

d) Perifacial;

d) back.
066. What parts of the CNS are peripheral receptors of the vestibular analyzer connected with, except for:

a) Spinal cord (anterior and lateral columns);

b) cerebellum;

c) Reticular formation;

d) the cerebral cortex;

e) Frontal lobe.

067. What types of reactions occur during irritation of the semicircular canals, except for:

a) dizziness;

b) Nystagmus;

c) Change in heart rate;

d) Deviation of the head towards the slow component of nystagmus;

e) Adiadochokinesis.
068. The patency of the auditory tubes is determined, except for:

a) According to Politzer;

b) According to Valsalva;

c) According to Taynbee;

d) Ear manometry;

e) Tympanometry.
069. What departments are distinguished in the membranous labyrinth, except for:

a) Webbed passage of the cochlea;

b) Matochka;

c) a pouch;

d) Semicircular canals;

e) Integumentary membrane.
070. Name the types of structure of the mastoid process, except:

a) Pneumatic;

b) Sclerotic;

c) Cortical;

d) Diploetic;

e) Mixed.
071. Factors contributing to the appearance of a furuncle of the external auditory canal, except for:

a) Dermatitis;

b) Purulent otitis media;

c) Adhesive otitis media;

d) Skin injuries;

e) Diabetes mellitus.
072. Specify the indications for general cavity sanitizing surgery on the ear, except for:

a) Chronic purulent - destructive epitympanitis;

b) Cholesteatoma of the middle ear;

c) Chronic suppurative otitis media with intracranial complications;

d) Acute purulent otitis media;

e) Chronic suppurative otitis media, epitympanitis, paresis of the facial nerve.
073. With combined damage to the outer and middle ear, except for:

a) Bleeding from the sigmoid sinus and bulb of the jugular vein;

b) Paralysis of the facial seal;

c) Limited and diffuse labyrinth;

d) Ear liquorrhea;

e) Paralysis of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
074. Specify the indications for paracentesis of the tympanic membrane in young children, except for:

a) Hyperthermia, intoxication;

b) Restless behavior;

c) Pronounced narrowing of the external auditory canal;

d) Infiltration, hyperemia and protrusion of the tympanic membrane;

e) Absence of otorrhea.

075. What layers does the tympanic membrane consist of, except for:

a) epidermis;

b) Fibrous layer;

c) Vascular membrane;

d) mucous membrane.
076. Causes of formation of sulfur plugs, except for:

a) Acute otitis;

b) Metabolic disorders in the body;

c) Narrowness of the ear canal;

d) Increased viscosity of sulfur.
077. What departments does the middle ear consist of, except for:

a) tympanic cavity;

b) snail;

c) Eustachian tube;

d) Antrum.
078. List the layers of the tympanic membrane in the stretched part, except for:

a) epidermis;

b) Fibrous layer;

c) mucous membrane;

d) muscle layer.
079. Name the floors of the tympanic cavity, except:

a) epitympanum;

b) Mesotympanum;

c) Hypotympanum;

d) Upper, middle.
080. What departments is the bony labyrinth divided into, except for:

a) snail;

b) pouch, uterus;

c) vestibule;

d) semicircular canals.
081. Name the degrees of nystagmus, except for:

a) the first;

b) Second;

c) the third;

nose anatomy

001. Joana is:

a) posterior parts of the upper nasal passage

b) an opening from the nasal cavity to the nasopharynx

c) posterior parts of the lower nasal passage

d) posterior sections of the common nasal passage

Correct answer: b

002. The outflow of blood from the external nose occurs in:

a) ophthalmic vein

b) anterior facial vein

c) thyroid vein

d) lingual vein

Correct answer: b

003. Glabella is:

a) a point above the anterior nasal axis

b) the transition zone of the root of the nose to the level of the eyebrows

c) the back of the nose

d) zone of the anterior protruding part of the chin

Correct answer: b

004. The opener is part of the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: g

005. The thickness of the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

b) 2 - 3 mm

c) 4 - 5 mm

d) 5 - 6 mm

Correct answer: b

006. Conchas are located on the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: in

007. The composition of the outer wall of the nasal cavity includes:

a) nasal bone

b) frontal, parietal bones

c) main bone

d) palatine bone

Correct answer: a

008. The composition of the upper wall of the nasal cavity does not include:

a) frontal bone

b) palatine bone

c) nasal bone

d) main bone

Correct answer: b

009. There are turbinates in the nasal cavity:

a) top, bottom, middle

b) superior, inferior, lateral

c) only top, bottom

d) medial, lateral

Correct answer: a

010. With anterior rhinoscopy, you can more often examine:

a) only the inferior turbinate

b) only the middle turbinate

c) superior turbinate

d) inferior and middle turbinates

Correct answer: g

011. Jacobson's rudimentary organ in the nasal cavity is located:

a) on the bottom wall

b) on the nasal septum

c) in the middle turbinate

d) in the middle nasal passage

Correct answer: b

012. A newborn has:

a) two turbinates

b) three turbinates

c) four turbinates

d) five turbinates

Correct answer: in

013. Nasolacrimal canal opens:

a) in the upper nasal passage

b) middle nasal passage

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: in

014. In the middle nasal passage open:

a) all paranasal sinuses

b) lacrimal canal

c) anterior sinuses

d) posterior cells of the ethmoid labyrinth

Correct answer: in

015. In the upper nasal passage open:

a) frontal sinus

b) posterior lattice cells, sphenoid sinus

c) all cells of the lattice labyrinth

d) lacrimal canal

Correct answer: b

016. The Kisselbach zone in the nasal cavity is located:

a) in the anterior part of the nasal septum

b) in the upper part of the nasal septum

c) in the mucous membrane of the inferior nasal concha

d) in the mucous membrane of the middle nasal concha

Correct answer: a

017. In the lower nasal passage opens:

a) maxillary sinus

b) frontal sinus

c) posterior cells of the ethmoid labyrinth

d) nasolacrimal canal

Correct answer: g

018. The main role in warming the air in the nasal cavity is played by:

a) bone tissue

b) cartilage tissue

c) cavernous tissue

d) mucous glands

Correct answer: in

019. A feature of the structure of the nasal mucosa is:

a) the presence of goblet cells

b) the presence of mucous glands

c) the presence of cavernous plexuses in the submucosal layer

d) the presence of ciliated epithelium

Correct answer: in

020. Upper resonators do not include:

a) nose and sinuses

b) pharynx and vestibule of the larynx

c) subglottic space of the larynx

d) cranial cavity

Correct answer: in

021. Molecules of odorous substances are called:

a) opsonins

b) odorivectors

c) endoporphyrins

d) otoconia

Correct answer: b

022. Diaphanoscopy is:

a) identification of areas of different temperatures

b) X-ray method of research

c) translucence of the sinuses of the nose with a light bulb

d) ultrasound examination

Correct answer: in

023. The main functions of the nose do not include:

a) respiratory

b) taste

c) olfactory

d) protective

Correct answer: b

024. Nasal breathing in newborns is mainly carried out through:

a) superior nasal passage

b) middle nasal passage

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: g

025. The main flow of inhaled air in the nasal cavity passes through the nasal passage:

a) top

b) medium

c) bottom

Correct answer: g

026. Parosmia is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) no sense of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) olfactory hallucinations

Correct answer: in

027. Kakosmiya is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) no sense of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) bad breath

Correct answer: g

028. The nose and its paranasal sinuses supply blood to:

a) system of external and internal carotid artery

b) vertebral artery system

c) lingual artery system

d) superior thyroid artery

Correct answer: a

029. Lymph from the anterior parts of the nasal cavity is drained to the lymph nodes:

a) in the pharyngeal lymph nodes

b) in the submandibular lymph nodes

c) in the anterior cervical lymph nodes

d) deep cervical lymph nodes

Correct answer: b

030. The motor innervation of the muscles of the nose is carried out:

a) lingual nerve

b) trigeminal nerve

c) facial nerve

d) vagus nerve

Correct answer: in

031. The lower respiratory tract includes:

a) larynx

c) paranasal sinuses

d) bronchi

Correct answer: g

032. The transport function in the nasal cavity is performed by the epithelium:

a) olfactory

b) multilayer flat

c) cubic

d) flickering

Correct answer: g

033. Nerve fibers pass through the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

a) wandering

b) olfactory

c) 1 branch of the trigeminal

d) 2 branches of the trigeminal

Correct answer: b

034. In humans, olfactory sensitivity increases with:

a) traumatic brain injury

b) tumors of the frontal lobe of the brain

c) epidural hematoma

d) Addison's disease

Correct answer: g

035. Ostiomeatal complex does not include:

a) anterior end of the middle turbinate

b) nasal septum

c) uncinate process and semilunar fissure

d) lattice bladder

Correct answer: b

036. The main function of the nasal septum:

a) resonant

b) protective

c) dividing the nasal cavity into two halves

d) olfactory

Correct answer: in

037. The most active mucociliary transport in the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity is carried out on:

a) superior turbinate

b) middle turbinate

c) inferior turbinate

d) nasal septum

Correct answer: in

038. In the own layer of the inferior turbinates are:

a) arterial plexuses

b) cavernous venous plexus

c) vascular capillary formations

d) mixed vascular plexuses

Correct answer: b

039. Cavernous venous plexuses in the nasal cavity perform the following functions:

a) respiratory

b) heater

c) transport

d) resonator

Correct answer: b

Similar information.

1.

BUT Mucus discharge from the nasal passages
B Difficulty in nasal breathing
AT Significantly reduced sense of smell
G Increasing the temperature to 39-400C
D Cough

2.

BUT Vasoconstrictor drops in the nasal passages
B Antibiotic therapy
AT Physiotherapy treatment
G Sunoref ointment in the nasal passages

3.

BUT Antihistamines
B Hormonal drugs
AT Drugs that block the release of histamine by mast cells (intal)
G Antibiotics
D Sulfanilamide preparations

4.

Predisposing factors for the occurrence of acute sinusitis are:

BUT Having an infection in the nasal passages
B Violation of the drainage and ventilation function of the natural fistulas of the paranasal sinuses
AT Reducing the overall resistance of the body

5.

BUT Rinsing the throat with infusions and decoctions of herbs
B Alkaline throat rinses
AT Irrigation (pulverization) of the pharynx with inhalipt or similar preparations
G General antibiotic therapy
D General hormone therapy
E UHF pharynx

6.

BUT Profuse watery discharge from the nasal passages
B Frequent repeated sneezing
AT Associated allergic conjunctivitis
G Purulent discharge from the nasal passages
D Temperature increase 38-400C

7.

BUT Hyperemia and ridge-like thickening of the free edge of the palatine arches
B Cicatricial adhesions between the arches and palatine tonsils
AT Regional lymphadenitis
G The presence of caseous-purulent plugs and liquid pus in the lacunae of the palatine tonsils
D Loose or scarred tonsils

8.

BUT Chronic hypertrophic laryngitis
B Chronic catarrhal laryngitis
AT Chronic atrophic laryngitis
G Keratosis of the larynx
D Leukoplakia of the larynx

9.

BUT Drop alcohol and remove the foreign body with a hook
B Wash with a solution from Janet's syringe
AT Remove foreign body with tweezers
G Remove loop
D Remove crochet

10.

BUT Frequent sore throats (more than twice a year)
B History of peritonsillar abscesses
AT Autoimmune diseases (glomerulonephritis, rheumatism)
G Tonsillocardial syndrome
D Chronic tonsillogenic intoxication
E Diabetes
AND chronic colitis

11.

BUT Increasing the temperature to 38-400C
B Difficulty opening the mouth
AT Sore throat predominantly on affected side
G Significant infiltration of peritonsillar tissue and mucosal hyperemia on the affected side
D Enlargement of the submandibular lymph nodes mainly on the side of the lesion
E Cough
AND Runny nose

Right answers:

1. A B C
2. A, B, G
3. A B C
4. A B C
5. A, B, C, E
6. A B C
7. A B C D
8. A B C D E
9. A B C D E
10. D
11. BUT